Me and my ex-h were married 1990 - 2000. During that time I was at home raising our 4 children and he worked at sea on oil tankers making a very successful and lucrative career for himself as a Ship's Captain/Master.
When we got divorced:
- my ex gave me the very minimum child support
- paid the mortgage. (He saw the house entirely as his, as he had purchased it a month before our marriage and put it in his name only.)
- I started work to support myself but could only get a part time job as I had four children under 12, the youngest was 18mths.
A short while after the divorce went through, he split up with his then girlfriend and moved back into the house with me and the kids - I was scared of him as there had been domestic violence etc and I just wanted to keep a roof over my kids' heads so I didn't do anything to stop him.
We 'lived together' for 4 more years until 2004, when I finally couldn't take it any more and we split for good.
I stayed in the house and he finally left.
He continued to pay the mortgage until it was paid up. He always told me as soon as the youngest was 16 he would sell the house, but he never did. Sorry for the long intro
Fast forward to now, I still live there and the youngest is about to move out and get his own place.
I've now told my ex that I want to finalise our finances and sort out the house etc. I suspect this will not be easy to make happen as he seems resistant to go through either mediation or courts.
tldr MY QUESTION IS will the time after our divorce when we lived together, affect our final settlement?
