We separated three years ago, and sold the family home a year thereafter.
At that point in time, I unilaterally did a rough 50:50 split of the total equity, taking into account assets that were in my ex wife's name. This was only rough, as she was elusive about her asset values so I had to guess. She claims that the split was more like 70:30 in my favour, but I am not expecting her to win that argument for a number of other reasons.
In the last year (i.e. 2 years post separation), I have invested 2/3s of what I regard as my split in the stock market in a range of stocks; by the nature of the maths, this is 100% of what my ex would claim as being mine. I researched these stocks thoroughly, and these did remarkably well as a result - over this time, my investments have risen by c.£150k. I intend to argue that I only invested my share of the divided marital assets.
I read on this forum that the answer is highly dependent on ages, length of marriage, number of children etc... Those points aside, what factors would a judge take into account when deciding whether or not these gains are post separation active growth, and whether to award a 100%, 50% or other % split of them. What are the key relevant points in my argument that I need a strong evidence trail on?
Many thanks
