I divorced over ten years ago.
At the time, a consent order was drawn up and signed that passed the matrimonial home over to my ex-wife. It was stated that this should be done within one month of the date of signature.
This never happened (and I cannot recall why). My ex-wife has now remarried and continues to live in the house. She has never asked me about transferring it and it remains in my name.
Can you advise where we both stand with this? The property has increased significantly in value over the time period so is worth far more than in the original calculations.
Do I just belatedly transfer it? Do I have any claim on the property (or the increase in value from the original calculation) based on time passed or her now married status?
Thanks
Mike